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GENERAL MEDICINE (96 QUESTIONS: KEY SET C)

Question:

Which one of the following is correct regarding arginine vasopressin antagonist Tolvaptan?

Options:

1. It is useful in hypovolemic hyponatremia
2. It antagonises the v1receptor
3. It should be used for at least 1 year
4. It is an oral drug

Answer:

4. It is an oral drug

Question:

Which one of the following conditions is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the sodium-potassium2-chloride cotransporter (NKCС2), and presents with sodium wasting, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia and hypercalciuria?

Options:

1. Alport syndrome
2. Bartter syndrome
3. Fanconi syndrome
4. Gitelman syndrome

Answer:

2. Bartter syndrome

Question:

A 52 year old male has uncontrolled diabetes. Which one of the following tests will help in early detection of nephropathy?

Options:

1. Blood urea level
2. Serum creatinine level
3. Ultrasonography
4. Urine albumin

Answer:

4. Urine albumin

Explanation:

Question:

Autosomal dominant mutations in which one of the following genes may cause focal segmental glomerulosclerosis associated with abnormal genitalia, Wilm’s tumour and mental retardation?

Options:

1. WT1
2. INF2
3. LMX1B
4. APOL1

Answer:

1. WT1

Question:

Kidney damage and Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) value between 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m² are found in which stage of Chronic Kidney Disease?

Options:

1. Stage 2 (mild)
2. Stage 3A (mild to moderate)
3. Stage 4 (severe)
4. Stage 5 (kidney failure)

Answer:

3. Stage 4 (severe)

Question:

Which one of the following hereditary tubulo-interstitial kidney diseases has an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance?

Options:

1. Medullary cystic kidney disease type 1
2. Medullary cystic kidney disease type 2
3. Nephronophthisis
4. Juvenile hyperuricaemic nephropathy

Answer:

3. Nephronophthisis

 

Question:

Which of the following findings in a patient are suggestive of acute nephritis?

I. Hematuria

II. Oliguria

III. Reduced size of both kidneys

IV. Edema

Select the correct answer using the code given below;

Options:

1. I and III
2. III and IV
3. I and II only
4. I, II and IV

Answer:

4. I, II and IV

Explanation:

Question:

35 year old male presents with increased urine output. On evaluation, his urinary output was around 4L/day; urinary osmolality was 200 mosmol/L. Which of the following are various differential diagnosis ?

I. Psychogenic polydipsia

II. Solute diuresis

III. Central diabetes insipidus

IV. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, III and IV
2. I and III only
3. II and IV
4. I and IV only

Answer:

1. I, III and IV

Question:

Contralateral Homonymous upper quadrantanopia is the type of visual loss seen when the lesion is located at which one of the following anatomical locations?

Options:

1. Frontal lobe
2. Temporal lobe
3. Parietal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Answer:

2. Temporal lobe

Question:

Which of the following are clinical features of migraine?

I. It is associated with dilatation of extracranial vessels
II. Common migraine is seen without Aura
Ill. Aura is most often visual

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I and Il only
3. II and III only
4. I and III only

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

A 50 year old man presents with brief episodes of lancinating unilateral facial pain, involving the buccal distribution. Pain is triggered by washing face with cold water. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

1. Migraine
2. Medication overuse headache
3. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania
4. Trigeminal neuralgia

Answer:

4. Trigeminal neuralgia

Question:

Which of the following are trigger factors for seizures?
I. Sleep deprivation
II. Missed doses of antiepileptic drugs
III. Recreational drug misuse
IV. Physical exhaustion

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. II and III only
2. I and IV only
3. I, Il and III only
4. I, II, IlI and IV

Answer:

4. I, II, IlI and IV

Question:

Which of the following heart sounds are best heard with the bell of stethoscope?
I. Opening snap
II. Systolic click
III. Third heart sound
IV. Mid diastolic murmur
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I and IV
2. II and IIl only
3. III and IV
4. I, II and III

Answer:

3. III and IV

Question:

Consider the following statements for diagnosing ventricular aneurysm in a patient with recent myocardial infarction :

I. Paradoxical impulse on chest wall

II. Persistent ST elevation on ECG

IlI. Unusual bulge from cardiac silhouette on X-ray

IV. Presence of pulsus paradoxsus

Which of the above are correct :

Options:

1. I and Il only
2. I and IV
3. I, II and III
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, II and III

Question:

Which one of the following statements is correct for subcutaneous nodules in Rheumatic fever?

Options:

1. They are present over flexor aspect of forearm
2. They are painful tender nodules
3. The usual size of these nodules is 3-5 cm
4. They typically appear more than 3 weeks after onset of other clinical manifestations

Answer:

4. They typically appear more than 3 weeks after onset of other clinical manifestations

Question:

Which one of the following is correct with regard to Carey Coombs murmur?

Options:

1. Soft systolic murmur due to mitral regurgitation
2. Soft mid-diastolic murmur due to mitral valvulitis
3. Harsh early diastolic murmur due to aortic regurgitation
4. Blowing late systolic murmur due to aortic stenosis

Answer:

2. Soft mid-diastolic murmur due to mitral valvulitis

Question:

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Opening Snap (OS) in a patient of mitral stenosis?

Options:

1. OS is best heard with the bell of stethoscope
2. Intensity of OS becomes louder when the valve is calcified
3. OS moves closer to the second sound (S2) as the stenosis becomes more severe
4. OS is best heard at the second left intercostal space

Answer:

3. OS moves closer to the second sound (S2) as the stenosis becomes more severe

Question:

Which one of the following responses to intravenous adenosine is correctly matched?

Arrhythmia Response
(a) Atrial fibrillation Termination
(b) Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia Termination
(c) Ventricular tachycardia Termination and complete recovery
(d) Atrial flutter Termination and complete recovery

Options:

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

Answer:

2. b

Question:

Consider the following steps for using; a metered dose inhaler (MDI) :

I. Incline the head backward to minimize oropharyngeal deposition

II. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler

III. Breathe out gently, and place the mouthpiece into the mouth

IV. Hold the breath for 10 seconds

V. Simultaneously, begin a slow deep inspiration, depress the canister, and continue to inhale

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of using MDI?

Options:

1. III, I, I, V, IV
2. II, I, IV, III, V
3. II, III, I, V, IV
4. III, I, II, IV, V

Question:

Under the Stepwise Approach to the management of Bronchial Asthma, which one of the following is the correct initial treatment at Step 1 for a patient diagnosed with Asthma?

Options:

1. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid
2. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus oral corticosteroid
3. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus long acting anti-muscarinic agents
4. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus leukotriene antagonist

Answer:

1. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid

Question:

62-year old male chronic smoker has been diagnosed with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). On pulmonary function testing, the ratio of Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) to Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) was 0.6 and FEV1 was 70% of predicted. What is the severity of airflow obstruction in this patient as per GOLD criteria?

Options:

1. Stage I – Mild
2. Stage II – Moderate
3. Stage III – Severe
4. Stage IV – Very severe

Answer:

2. Stage II – Moderate

Question:

Which one of the following correctly denotes the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis ?

Options:

1. Autosomal Dominant
2. Autosomal Recessive
3. X-linked Dominant
4. X-linked Recessive

Answer:

2. Autosomal Recessive

Question:

Wilson’s disease has which of the following inheritance?

Options:

1. X-linked recessive
2. Autosomal dominant
3. Autosomal recessive
4. It is an acquired disease

Answer:

3. Autosomal recessive

Question:

Which of the following conditions are contraindications for noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation in patients with respiratory failure?

I. Craniofacial abnormalities

II. Significant burns

III. Respiratory failure with PaCO2 60 mm Hg

IV. Cardiovascular instability

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

Which one of the following terms denotes the extensive sclerosis of the skin of the chest wall which restricts chest wall movement and is seen as a rare complication of systemic sclerosis?

Options:

1. Flail Chest
2. Hidebound Chest
3. Barrel Chest
4. Pigeon Chest

Answer:

2. Hidebound Chest

Question:

Which one of the following childhood epileptic disorders often needs long term treatment with antiepileptic drugs?

Options:

1. Benign neonatal seizures
2. Febrile seizures
3. Benign rolandic epilepsy
4. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

Answer:

4. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

Question:

Which of the following are clinical features of Parkinson’s disease?

I. Reduced eye blinking

II. Drooling of saliva

III. Soft voice

IV. Macrographia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

A 35 year female presents with easy fatigability. Investigations show that Hb is 6%; Red cell morphology is normocytic normochromic; and reticulocyte production index is 5.5. Which one of the following conditions favours this abnormality?

Options:

1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Sideroblastic anemia
3. Folate deficiency
4. Intravascular hemolysis

Answer:

4. Intravascular hemolysis

Question:

A 46 year old lady on vegan diet for a decade presents with chief complaints of tingling and numbness in lower limbs for two months and a history of swaying while walking through narrow corridors. Which one of the following blood tests is advisable for diagnosis in this patient ?

Options:

1. Serum protein electrophoresis
2. Anti-gliadin antibodies
3. Vitamin 25(OH) D level
4. Vitamin B12 levels

Answer:

4. Vitamin B12 levels

Question:

Which one of the following causes low-volume erythrocytosis?

Options:

1. Polycythemia Rubra Vera
2. Exogenous testosterone therapy
3. Gaisbock’s syndrome
4. High altitude

Answer:

3. Gaisbock’s syndrome

Question:

First line therapy in chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukemia is

Options:

1. Rituximab
2. Thalidomide
3. Imatinib
4. Chlorambucil

Answer:

3. Imatinib

Question:

With regard to management of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura consider the following statements:

I. All Patients with ITP with platelet count less than 100×109/L should receive high dose of glucocorticoids

II. For patient with spontaneous bleeding, 40 mg of dexamethasone daily is indicated for 4 days

III. Intravenous immunoglobulin can raise the platelet count

IV. Life threatening bleeding should be treated with platelet transfusion

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Answer:

2. II, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following drugs can cause secondary weight gain?
I. Insulin
II. Propranolol
III. Orlistat
IV. Thyroxine
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and IV
2. I and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I and II only

Answer:

4. I and II only

Question:

Under which one of the following conditions, the HPA axis suppression is likely to result in crisis due to adrenal insufficiency following withdrawal of glucocorticoids ?

Options:

1. If glucocorticoids have been given by intravenous route for five days
2. If glucocorticoids have been administered orally for one week
3. If glucocorticoids have been prescribed repeatedly within the previous year
4. If the dose is less than equivalent of 5 mg prednisolone per day

Answer:

3. If glucocorticoids have been prescribed repeatedly within the previous year

Question:

Which of the following can be used for the management of severe hyperkalaemia?
I. Intravenous calcitonin
II. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
III. Oral sodium polystyrene sulphate
IV. Intravenous calcium gluconate
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and IV
2. II, III and IV
3. I and II only
4. I and IV only

Answer:

2. II, III and IV

Question:

Which one of the following conditions can cause euvolaemic hyponatraemia?

Options:

1. Adrenocortical failure
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Burns

Answer:

2. Hypothyroidism

Question:

Consider the following pleural fluid analysis :

  • pH 7.6
  • Pleural fluid protein – 0.5 g/dL
  • Serum total protein – 6.5 g/dL
  • Pleural fluid LDH – 100 U/L
  • Serum LDH – 300 U/L

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

1. Pancreatitis
2. Myxedema
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer:

2. Myxedema

Question:

‘Masson Bodies’ formed due to proliferation of immature collagen are a characteristic histopathological finding seen in which of the following conditions?

Options:

1. Lymphocytic Interstitial Pneumonia
2. Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia
3. Desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia
4. Respiratory Bronchiolitis

Answer:

2. Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia

Question:

Consider the following statements regarding respiratory function in old age:
I. There is increasing ventilation perfusion mismatch.
II. There is increased ventilatory response to hypoxia and hypercapnia
III. There is a decline in maximum oxygen uptake leading to reduction in cardiorespiratory reserve
IV. There is decline in the Forced Expiratory Volume to Forced Vital Capacity ratio (FEV1/FVC) by around 0.2% per year after the forties

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer:

4. I, III and IV

Question:

Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of pulmonary involvement in rheumatoid disease?

Options:

1. Rheumatoid pulmonary nodules are usually asymptomatic and detected incidentally on imaging
2. Rheumatoid pulmonary nodules are often solitary and located near hilum
3. Pleural effusion in these patients is transudative and usually bilateral
4. Combination of pleural effusion and pneumoconiosis in these patients is known Caplan syndrome

Answer:

1. Rheumatoid pulmonary nodules are usually asymptomatic and detected incidentally on imaging

Question:

Which one of the following conditions is a complication of bacterial pharyngitis involving extension of infection into the internal jugular veins leading to thrombosis and metastatic dispersal of the organism?

Options:

1. Cystic Fibrosis
2. Chronic Pulmonary Aspergillosis
3. Lemierre syndrome
4. Wegener’s granulomatosis

Answer:

3. Lemierre syndrome

Question:

A 42-year old man with history of alcohol dependency presents with progressive abdominal distension. Abdominal examination reveals a shifting dullness. Which one of the following is the most appropriate drug to relieve this abdominal distension?

Options:

1. Octreotide
2. Propranolol
3. Lactulose
4. Spironolactone

Answer:

4. Spironolactone

Question:

Which one of the following is the investigation of choice for diagnosing the presence of stones in the gall bladder?

Options:

1. Transabdominal ultrasound
2. Erect X ray of abdomen
3. Capsule endoscopy
4. Computed Tomography

Answer:

1. Transabdominal ultrasound

Question:

Which one of the following biologic agents used in the treatment of inflammatory Bowel Disease acts by inhibiting the enzyme ‘Janus Kinase’ ?

Options:

1. Infliximab
2. Adalimumab
3. Vedolizumab
4. Tofacitinib

Answer:

4. Tofacitinib

Question:

Melanosis coli which occurs due to long term consumption of stimulant laxatives, presents as brown discolouration of colonic mucosa due to deposition of which one of the following pigments?

Options:

1. Melanin
2. Haemosiderin
3. Lipofuscin
4. Haemoglobin

Answer:

3. Lipofuscin

Question:

Consider the following with regard to Gilbert Syndrome;

I. Autosomal recessive trait of a mutation in gene for UDP-glucuronyl transferase enzyme
II. Elevation of unconjugated bilirubin
IlI. No stigmata of chronic liver disease other than jaundice
IV. Early Liver biopsy recommended in patients with possible Gilbert Syndrome

Which of the above are correct?

Options:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I, II and III
4. III and IV

Answer:

3. I, II and III

Question:

The single most important treatment and prognostic factor in alcohol-related liver disease is

Options:

1. N-acetyl cysteine
2. Cessation of alcohol consumption
3. Liver transplantation
4. High dose vitamin E

Answer:

2. Cessation of alcohol consumption

Question:

A 40 year old man with a known case of chronic pancreatitis presents to the OPD with complaint of skin pigmentation over the abdomen. The patient gives a history of chronic use of a hot water bottle to relieve the abdominal discomfort. Which one of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

Options:

1. Erythema infectiosum
2. Erythema marginatum
3. Erythema nodosum
4. Erythema ab igne

Answer:

4. Erythema ab igne

Question:

Which of the following statements are typical for classic heat stroke?

I. Older patient

II. Normokalemia

III. Hyponatremia

IV. Marked lactic acidosis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and III
2. I and II
3. III and IV
4. II and IV

Answer:

2. I and II

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Weil’s disease ?

I. It is caused by a virus named leptospira

II. Acute kidney injury can lead to oliguria in this disease

III. Microscopic agglutination is the investigation of choice

IV. Ceftriaxone given parenterally is effective treatment

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer:

2. II, III and IV

Question:

Which of the flowing are components of SOFA scoring system?

I. PaO2/FiO2 ratio

II. Mean arterial pressure

III. Glasgow coma scale

IV. Prothrombin Time with INR

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III

2. I, II and IV

3. I, III and IV

4. II, III and IV

Answer:

  1. I, II and III

Question:

What are the components to establish the diagnosis of Brain Death?
I. Absent brain stem reflexes
II. Apnoea in presence of elevated PCO2
III. Hypothermia
IV. Irreversible and unresponsive coma
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II and IV only

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

The most common cause for non-traumatic sub-arachnoid haemorrhage is

Options:

1. AV malformation
2. Saccular aneurysm rupture
3. Extension from primary intracerebral haemorrhage
4. Idiopathic

Answer:

2. Saccular aneurysm rupture

Question:

Peri-operative respiratory failure is an example of

Options:

1. Type I respiratory failure
2. Type II respiratory failure
3. Type III respiratory failure
4. Type IV respiratory failure

Answer:

3. Type III respiratory failure

Question:

The murmur of mitral regurgitation is best heard at

Options:

1. Tricuspid area
2. Aortic area
3. Cardiac apex
4. Pulmonary area

Answer:

3. Cardiac apex

Question:

A 28 year female presented to emergency with fever, agitation and delirium. She was on regular medication of Carbimazole 40 mg daily, but missed her doses for the last 2 days. Which of the following scoring systems would you like to do to assess severity of disease?

Options:

1. DAS 28 score
2. Burch-Wartofsky score
3. Expanded Disability Status Scale
4. Sequential Organ Failure Assessment Score

Answer:

2. Burch-Wartofsky score

Question:

Out of the following areas of brain, which area is most commonly affected on brain imaging in Wilson’s disease ?

Options:

1. Cerebellum
2. Sub-cortex
3. Thalamus
4. Basal ganglia

Answer:

4. Basal ganglia

Question:

Which of the following are secondary iron overload conditions?
I. Transfusion related iron load
II. Thalassemia
III. Hepatitis C associated liver disease
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. I and III only

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following are features of Alzheimer’s disease?
I. It is a disorder of cerebral cortical function
II. Only short term memory is affected
III. Patients deny that there is anything wrong
IV. Depression is commonly present
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

Glymphatics is the lymphatic like structure of which system ?

Options:

1. Central Nervous System
2. Respiratory
3. Renal
4. Gastro-intestinal

Answer:

1. Central Nervous System

Question:

Which one among the following vectors transmits the filaria Loa Loa?

Options:

1. Simulium
2. Chrysops
3. Cyclops
4. Culicoides

Answer:

2. Chrysops

Question:

Which of the following is the most favourable prognostic parameter in Bell’s palsy?

Options:

1. Incomplete paralysis in the first week
2. Mild CSF lymphocytosis
3. Denervation in EMG after 10 days
4. Pain behind the ear

Answer:

1. Incomplete paralysis in the first week

Question:

Which one of the following groups of drugs is ineffective against gram positive bacteria?

Options:

1. Monobactams
2. Glycopeptides
3. Fluoroquinolones
4. First generation cephalosporins

Answer:

1. Monobactams

Question:

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding leprosy?

Options:

1. Type 1 Leprosy Reaction is also called erythema nodosum leprosum
2. Type 2 Leprosy Reaction is an immune complex mediated syn-drome called arthus phenomenon
3. ‘Lion face’ appearance is seen in tuberculoid leprosy
4. Nose is the last site of involvement in lepromatous leprosy

Answer:

2. Type 2 Leprosy Reaction is an immune complex mediated syn-drome called arthus phenomenon

Question:

56 year old gardener presents with an ulcerative nodule with purulent discharge on his right index finger. He had a prick with a thorn, at the same site around a month back. Which one of the following infections is most likely?

Options:

1. Chromoblastomycosis
2. Mycetoma
3. Phacohyphomycosis
4. Sporotrichosis

Answer:

4. Sporotrichosis

Question:

A 36 year old man presents with decreased apetite, mouth soreness, diarrhoea and irritability. On examination he has a bright red tongue with a pigmented scaly rash around the neck. Which one of the following food items in his diet has a bearing on his disease?

Options:

1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Corn
4. Fish

Answer:

3. Corn

Question:

Acrodermatitis enteropathica is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder which affects the absorption of which one of the following micronutrients?

Options:

1. Iodine
2. Zinc
3. Iron
4. Selenium

Answer:

2. Zinc

Question:

Consider the following statements with regard to the treatment of vitamin A deficiency :

I. Repeated high doses of retinol can cause liver damage and teratogenicity

II. Acute overdose of vitamin A may lead to increased intracranial pressure and skin desquamation

III. Regular vitamin A supplementation is also recommended for pregnant women even in countries where vitamin A deficiency is not endemic

IV. Excessive intake of carotene may cause harmless orange pigmentation of the skin

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

Koebner phenomenon is seen in which one of the following conditions?

Options:

1. Psoriasis
2. Acne Vulgaris
3. Behcet’s disease
4. Leprosy

Answer:

1. Psoriasis

Question:

Consider the folowing regardigs the human hair growth cycle :
I. Anagen is a phase of active hair growth
II. Telogen is a transitional phase
III. Catagen is a resting phase
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:

1. I only
2. III only
3. I and II only
4. I, II and III

Answer:

1. I only

Question:

Consider the following statements regarding oculocutaneous albinism:
I. The disease results from genetic abnormalities leading to destruction of melanocytes
II. Type 1 albinism is due to a defect in the tyrosinase gene
III. Patients may present with poor vision, rotator nystagmus and alternating strabismus
IV. Patients are at an increased risk of sunburn or developing skin cancer

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

4. II, III and IV

Question:

42 year old man presented with recurrent oral ulcers since one year, episodes of redness of eye and genital ulcers. Which one of the following tests is of diagnostic value?

Options:

1. Mantoux test
2. Drug-sensitivity test
3. Pathergy test
4. Patch test

Answer:

3. Pathergy test

Question:

Which one of the following statements is correct in the diagnosis of Giardiasis?

Options:

1. Stool sample at 2-3 days interval should be examined for cysts
2. String test is done to find out cysts of Giardia lamblia
3. Jejunal biopsy samples can show presence of larvae of Giardia lamblia
4. Cystic form of Giardia lamblia remains viable in water upto 1 week only

Answer:

1. Stool sample at 2-3 days interval should be examined for cysts

Question:

In clinical assessment of an elderly patient, the get up and go test’ is used to evaluate which of the following?

Options:

1. Gait and balance
2. Cognition
3. Driving ability
4. Urinary incontinence

Answer:

1. Gait and balance

Question:

Treatment of first choice in acute gout is

Options:

1. Oral Methotrexate
2. Oral Colchicine
3. Allopurinol
4. Sulfasalazine

Answer:

2. Oral Colchicine

Question:

A 56 year male came with acute onset breathlessness and found to have pneumothorax. The resident doctor decided to insert intercostals drain. Which one of the following sites is suitable for such a procedure?

Options:

1. Hesselbach’s triangle
2. Petilis triangle
3. Triangle of safety
4. Triangle of auscultation

Answer:

3. Triangle of safety

Question:

Which one of the following is an antidote for Rivaroxaban and Apixaban, when reversal of anticoagulation is needed due to uncontrolled bleeding?

Options:

1. Idarucizumab
2. Andexanet Alfa
3. Hydroxocobalamin
4. Glucarpidase

Answer:

2. Andexanet Alfa

Question:

Which of the following are included in common causes of mediastinal masses in superior and anterior mediastinum?
I. Goitre
Il. Thymic tumour
III. Neurogenic tumour
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Answer:

1. I and II only

Question:

Which one of the following is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of Dabigatran?

Options:

1. Glucarpidase
2. Desferrioxamine
3. Idarucizumab
4. Protamine

Answer:

3. Idarucizumab

Question:

Which one of the following is contraindication of doing a wireless capsule endoscopy?

Options:

1. Coeliac disease
2. Small bowel stricture
3. Obscure gastrointestinal bleeding
4. Small bowel Crohn’s disease

Answer:

2. Small bowel stricture

Question:

Which one of the following is the causative organism of Erythrasma, a mild, localized and superficial skin infection?

Options:

1. Corynebacterium pseudo tuberculosis
2. Corynebacterium minutissimum
3. Corynebacterium diphthariae
4. Corynebacterium matruchotii

Answer:

2. Corynebacterium minutissimum

Question:

Which one of the following is correctly matched regarding classification of portal hypertension according to site of vascular obstruction?

Options:

1. Sinusoidal – Venoocclusive disease
2. Pre-hepatic presinusoidal – Portal vein thrombosis
3. Intrahepatic presinusoidal – Cirrhosis
4. Post-hepatic post sinusoidal – Schistosomiasis

Answer:

2. Pre-hepatic presinusoidal – Portal vein thrombosis

Question:

Which one of the following is a secondary cause of headache?

Options:

1. Migraine
2. Tension-type headache
3. Trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia
4. Medication overuse headache

Answer:

4. Medication overuse headache

Question:

A 32 year old man presents with history of recurrent jaundice over the previous decade. Family gives history of the patient having episodes of facial grimacing. Which one of the following is a clinical clue to the diagnosis?

Options:

1. Adenoma sebaceum in the mid face
2. Erythema nodosum on the skin
3. Kayser-Fleisher rings in the cornea
4. Olser’s nodes at the finger tips

Answer:

3. Kayser-Fleisher rings in the cornea

Question:

Which of the following joints are commonly affected in osteoarthritis?
I. First metatarsophalangeal joint
II. Proximal interphalangeal joint
III. Ankle joint
IV. 5th and 6th cervical vertebrae joint
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I and II only
2. III and IV only
3. I, II and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, II and IV only

Question:

Which of the following are causes.of reversible dementia?

I. Hypothyroidism

II. Vitamin B12 deficiency

III. Dementia with lewy body

IV. Thiamine deficiency

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

Which of the following are clinical features of Fronto-Temporal dementia ?
I. Personality change
II. Language disturbance
Ill. Memory may be preserved in early stages
IV. Anti-cholinesterases are the drug of choice for treatment

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which one of the following is the myelinating cell of Central Nervous System?

Options:

1. Astrocyte
2. Microglia
3. Schwann cell
4. Oligodendrocyte

Answer:

4. Oligodendrocyte

Question:

Which one of the following is the correct description of Mee’s lines, seen in chronic arsenic poisoning?

Options:

1. Transverse white lines on nails of fingers and toes
2. Transverse red lines on the skin of palms and soles
3. Transverse white lines o n the skin of palms and soles
4. Transverse red lines on the nails of fingers and toes

Answer:

1. Transverse white lines on nails of fingers and toes

Question:

Fomepizole is an antidote used to treat poisoning from which of the following substances?
I. Methanol
II. Digoxin
III. Cocaine
IV. Ethylene glycol
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. I and IV

Answer:

4. I and IV

Question:

The 4A Test is a screening tool for detection of delirium. Which of the following parameters are included in the 4AT too!?
I. Alertness
Il. Apnoea
III. Abbreviated Mental Test (AMT4)
IV. Attention
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following combinations of lab test results is indicative of heavy alcohol consumption, with more than 60% sensitivity and specificity?

Options:

1. Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) > 35 U/L and alkaline phosphatase > 45 U/L
2. Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT) > 20 U/L and serum uric acid < 7 mg/dL
3. High normal MCV ≥ 21 fL and CDT < 20 U/L
4. GGT > 35 U/L and CDT > 20 U/L

Answer:

4. GGT > 35 U/L and CDT > 20 U/L

Question:

What is the antidote for belladonna poisoning?

Options:

1. Physostigmine
2. Amitriptyline
3. Atropine
4. Flumazenil

Answer:

1. Physostigmine

Question:

Which one of the following prevents gastrointestinal absorption of thallium?

Options:

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Prussian blue
3. Penicillamine
4. Potassium permanganate

Answer:

2. Prussian blue

Question:

A 45 year old farmer came with accidental consumption of a pesticide. He complained of frequent urination and excessive salivation. Which one of the following toxidromes is most likely to be associated with this poisoning?

Options:

1. Serotonergic
2. Cholinergic
3. Adrenergic
4. Hypnotic

Answer:

2. Cholinergic

Question:

Consider the following regarding salicylate poisoning
I. Arterial pH of 7.25, anion gap of 18 mmol/L
II. Arterial pH of 7.25, anion gap of 10 mmol/L
III. pCO2 of 20 mm Hg
IV. pCO2 of 48 mm Hg
Which disturbance is likely to be encountered?

Options:

1. I and III
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. II and IV

Answer:

1. I and III

 

PEDIATRICS (24 QUESTIONS: KEY SET C)

Question:

Which of the following are included as a “Deficiency” under the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)?

I. Hypothyroidism

II. Vitamin A deficiency

III. Anemia

IV. Vitamin D deficiency

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I. III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

4. II, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding management of hyperkalemia in a child?

I. Intravenous calcium (gluconate or chloride) is given to enhance cellular uptake of potassium

II. Beta adrenergic agonists (salbutamol or terbutaline) are used to stabilize myocardial cell membrane

III. Regular insulin and glucose given intravenously enhance cellular uptake of potassium

IV. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate enhances total body potasšium elimination

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. III and IV

Answer:

4. III and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct about(oral rotavirus vaccines)?

I. The storage should be at 2-8°C

II. The vaccine should be used within 2 hours of reconstitution or opening

III. Past history of intussusception is a contraindication

IV. The vaccine can be given if the baby has ongoing diarrhoea

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II
2. III and IV
3. I and III
4. II and IV

Answer:

3. I and III

Question:

A child can make a tower of 3 blocks, runs, copies his motherwhile sweeping and has a vocabulary of 8-10 words. His developmental age is

Options:

1. 12 months
2. 15 months
3. 18. months
4. 24 months

Answer:

3. 18. months

Question:

A child can ride a tricycle, copies a circle, knows name and gender. The developmental age of this child is:

Options:

1. 2 years
2. 3 years
3. 4 years
4. 5 years

Answer:

2. 3 years

Question:

A teen boy with birth weight of 2.8 kg is born to a primigravida mother through vaginal delivery and cried immediately after birth.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding his initial care after birth?

I. The baby should be initiated on breastfeeding within one hour of birth

II. The baby should be kept in a separate area from the mother

III. The baby should be administered with 0.5 mg of vitamin K intramuscularly

IV. The baby should be thoroughly examined for congenital malformations from head to toe

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I and IV

Answer:

4. I and IV

Question:

Which of the following are causes of secondary immunodeficiency in children?

I. Diphenylhydantoin

II. Severe malnutrition

II. Post-varicella state

IV. Nephrotic syndrome

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding vaccination routes for children?

I. Hepatitis B vaccine given in deltoid region has reduced efficacy

II. Two vaccines may be given in the same thigh, but separated by 1 inch

III. Separate sites are used when administering a vaccine and an immunoglobulin

IV. Two intramuscular vaccines may be given on the same day but in separate limbs

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. III only
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I and IV

Answer:

3. II and III

Question:

A radiopaque density may be noticed in poisoning by which of the following agents?

Options:

1. Phenazopyridine
2. Ethylene glycol
3. Chloroquine
4. Chloral hydrate

Answer:

4. Chloral hydrate

Question 10:

Which of the following syndromes are caused due to genomic imprinting?

I. Rubinstein Taybi syndrome

II. Prader-Willi syndrome

III. Angelman syndrome

IV. Edward syndrome

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and III
2. II and III
3. II and IV
4. I and IV

Answer:

2. II and III

Question:

As per POCSO (Protection of Children from Sexual Offences) Act 2012, sexual assault is considered aggravated when

I. the abuse involves use of physical violence

II. the abused child is disabled

III. the abuse is committed by staff of an educational institution

IV. the abuse is committed by an immediate family member/first degree relative

Which of the above are correct?

Options:

1. I and IV
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. II and IV

Answer:

3. II and III

Question:

The mother of a 14-month-old normally developing baby comes to you for feeding advice. Which of the following would be appropriate for her as per the IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness) Program?

I. Breastfeed as often as the child wants

II. Keep the child in your lap and feed with your own hands

III. Offer food from the family pot

IV. Give 3 to 4 meals each day

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. II, III and IV
2. I, III and IV
3. I, II and III
4. I, II and IV

Answer:

2. I, III and IV

Question:

Which one of the following oral drugs may be used in the management of super-refractory status epilepticus?

Options:

1. Clonazepam
2. Clobazam
3. Lamotrigine
4. Topiramate

Answer:

4. Topiramate

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the use of benzodiazepines in the initial management of status epilepticus?

I. Upto two doses may be used 5 minutes apart, if seizures are not controlled

II. For Lorazepam, only a single dose should be used, even if seizures are not controlled

III. Dose of midazolam at this stage is 1-15 µg/kg/min infusion

IV. Dose of both lorazepam and midazolam is 0·1 mg/kg

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and III
2. I and IV
3. II and III
4. II and IV

Answer:

2. I and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding hypernatremia in children?

I. Diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) may cause hypernatremia

II. Addison disease may be associated with hypernatremia

III. Use of boiled skimmed milk can lead to hypernatremia

IV. Use of lactulose can lead to hypernatremia

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, III and IV
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II and III
4. I, II and IV

Answer:

1. I, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the management of gastrointestinal bleeding in children?

I. Somatostatin or octreotide infusion should be given for at least 7 days after stoppage of initial bleeding to prevent rebleeding

II. Endoscopic Sclerotherapy (EST) involves endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or isobutyl-2-cyanoacrylate

III. EST has upto 90% efficacy in controlling acute bleeding

IV. Following an episode of acute variceal bleeding, all patients should receive secondary prophylaxis to prevent rebleeding

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II
2. I and III
3. III and IV
4. II and IV

Answer:

3. III and IV

Question:

Which of the following are advantages of endotracheal intubation, in a child requiring pediatric advanced life support?

I. Inspiratory time can be controlled

II. Positive end-expiratory pressure can be provided

III. Peak expiratory pressure can be controlled

IV. Reduced risk of aspiration gastric contents

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following are causes of hypocalcemia in a child?

I. Hypomagnesemia

II. Hypophosphatemia

III. Metabolic acidosis

IV. Pseudohypoparathyroidism

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. I and IV

Answer:

4. I and IV

Question:

For a sick child aged 4 years, which of the following are signs of “severe pneumonia or very severe disease”, as per IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness) Program?

I. Fast breathing (Greater than or equal to 40 breaths per minute)

II. Child vomits everything

III. Stridor in a calm child

IV. Chest indrawing

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. II and IV

Answer:

2. II and III

Question:

In a child aged 3 years with an ear problem which one of these situations merits urgent referral to hospital?

Options:

1. Pus seen draining from the ear, and discharge reported for less than 14 days
2. Pus seen draining from the ear, and ‘discharge reported for, more than or equal to 14 days
3. Tender swelling behind the ear
4. Pus seen draining from both ears, irrespective of duration

Answer:

3. Tender swelling behind the ear

Question:

Upto 10% of cases of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) may be caused by genetic conditions. Which of the following are known to be associated with ASD?

I. Tuberous sclerosís

II. Fragile X syndrome

III. Prader-Willi syndrome

IV. Patau syndrome

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I and II
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I and IV

Answer:

1. I and II

Question:

Which of the following are characteristic features of cerebral palsy?

I. Disorder of movement

II. Permanent nature

III. Progressive course

IV. Disorder of posture

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

Which of the following are the tools used for classification of spasticity in a child with cerebral palsy?

I. Gross Motor Function Classification System

II. Medical Research Council System

III. Modified Connors Scale (Connors-II)

IV. Modified Ashworth Scale

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. I and IV

Answer:

4. I and IV

Question:

Which of the following medications may be used in a child diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder ?

I. Carbamazepine

II. methylphenidate

III. Atomoxetine

IV. Clonazepam

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and III
2. II and III
3. II and IV
4. I and IV

Answer:

2. II and III

PSM (40 QUESTIONS: KEY SET C)

Question:

Which one of the following is the major contributor to the total energy intake in terms of energy provided, in an average Indian diet?

Options:

1. Fats
2. Carbohydrates
3. Proteins
4. Vitamins

Answer:

2. Carbohydrates

Question:

Consider the following with regard to Amino Acids:

I. Essential Amino Acids are those that the body cannot synthesize and they must be obtained from dietary proteins.

II. Not just the Essential Amino Acids, Non-essential Amino Acids are also needed by the body for synthesis of tissue proteins.

III. Unless a protein contains all the Essential Amino Acids in amounts corresponding to human needs, a protein is said to be biologically incomplete

IV. Animal proteins are rated superior to vegetable proteins.

Of the above statements, how many are correct?

Options:

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Answer:

4. All four

Question:

Which of the following strategies were enouraged by the UNICEF under its ‘GOBI campaign’?

I. G for growth charts to better monitor child development

II. O for oral rehydration to treat all mild and moderate dehydration

III. B for better and continuous evaluation of children up to 5 years of age

IV. I for immunization against measles, diphtheria, polio, pertussis, tetanus and tuberculosis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

What is the limit of daily exposure of noise that people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing?

Options:

1. 65 dB
2. 85 dB
3. 105 dB
4. 125 dB

Answer:

2. 85 dB

Question:

How much illumination is recommended by the Illuminating Engineering Society for the general office work ?

Options:

1. 100 lux
2. 200 lux
3. 400 lux
4. 900 lux

Answer:

3. 400 lux

Question:

Dietary fibres have

Options:

1. Anabolic effect
2. catabolic effect
3. no metabolic effect
4. sometimes anabolic and sometimes catabolic effect, depending on the type

Answer:

3. no metabolic effect

Question:

Egg proteins are considered to be the best among food proteins because :

I. of their biological value

II. of their digestibility

III. they contain all the essential amino acids

IV. their calorie content is higher than in proteins of vegetable sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:

1. I only
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and III

Question:

On a chest radiograph, which of the following occupational diseases is most likely to be mistaken as a case of tuberculosis of lungs ?

Options:

1. Anthracosis
2. Silicosis
3. Siderosis
4. Byssinosis

Answer:

2. Silicosis

Question:

With which variety of asbestos, Mesothelioma has been shown to have a strong association?

Options:

1. Amosite
2. Anthrophyllite
3. Crocidolite
4. Chrysolite

Answer:

3. Crocidolite

Question:

Under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016, human anatomical wasto is to be carried in which colour plastic bags ?

Options:

1. Yellow
2. Red
3. Blue
4. Black

Answer:

1. Yellow

Question:

Which of the following indicators are considered for computing “Physical Quality of Life Index” (PQLI) ?

I. Infant mortality

II. Life expectancy at age one

III. Literacy

IV. Per capita income

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which one of the following terms is an “all-or-none phenomenon” and is best described as termination of all transmission of infection by extermination of the infectious agent?

Options:

1. Disease control
2. Disease elimination
3. Disease eradication
4. Disease surveillance

Answer:

3. Disease eradication

Question:

Objectives are set forth for different units and subunits, each of which prepares its own plan of action, usually on a short-term basis.”

The definition best sums up which one among the following terms?

Options:

1. Input-Output analysis
2. Personnel management
3. Management by objectives
4. Work sampling

Answer:

3. Management by objectives

Question:

The Panchayati Raj is a three-tier structure of rural local self-government in India with the three levels being village, block and district.
Consider the following bodies:

I. Gram Sabha

II. Gram Panchayat

III. Nyaya Panchayat

IV. Panchayat Samiti

Which of the above bodies are present at the village level?

Options:

1. I and II only
2. III and IV only
3. I, II and III
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, II and III

Question:

May patients with unexplained, rash and fever were reported from a village close to the Primary Health Centre (PHC). What is the first step in initiating the investigation of such an epidemic?

Options:

1. Rapid search for all cases
2. Verification of diagnosіs
3. Confirm existence of epidemic
4. Defining the population at risk

Answer:

2. Verification of diagnosіs

Question:

John Snow’s discovery that cholera is a waterborne disease was the outcome of which type of study?

Options:

1. Uncontrolled trial
2. Natural experiment
3. Risk factor trial
4. Trial of aetiological agent

Answer:

2. Natural experiment

Question:

Given below is a table showing diamosis of Myocardial infarction by ECG:

ECG results Myocardial infarction
Present Absent
Positive 45 8,000
Negative 5 32,000
Total 50 40,000

Consider the following statements:

I. Sensitivity is 90%.

II. Specificity is 80%.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Answer:

3. Both I and II

Question:

Data obtained from hospital records is not a representative sample of the population. What are the reasons for this?

I. Mild cases and subclinical cases may be missed.

II. Population served by a hospital usually cannot be defined.

III. Cost of hospital care is not recorded.

IV. Admission policy for cases can vary from hospital to hospital

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I, II and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, II and IV

Question:

Of the following ocular manifestations of Vitamin A deficiency, the first sign that can be clinically seen is :

Options:

1. Bitot’s spots
2. Nyctalopia
3. Conjunctival Xerosis
4. Corneal Xerosis

Answer:

3. Conjunctival Xerosis

Question:

The bony deformity of ‘pigeon chest’ in children occurs due to deficiency of:

Options:

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin E
4. Vitamin K

Answer:

2. Vitamin D

Question:

As an index of thermal comfort, the ‘Corrécted Effective Temperature’ is considered to be an improvement over Effective Temperature’. It deals with which of the following factors?

I. Air velocity

II. Humidity

III. Mean radiant heat

IV. Sweat rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, III and IV
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II and III
4. I and II only

Answer:

3. I, II and III

Question:

In a child who has not received any dose of DPT and OPV immunization, up to what age can these vaccines be given under Universal Immunization Programme ?

Options:

1. DPT up to 7 years of age and OPV up to 5 years of age
2. DPT up to 8 years of age and OPV up to 6 years of age
3. DPT up to 10 years of age and OPV up to 7 years of age
4. DPT up to 12 years of age and OPV up to 10 years of age

Answer:

1. DPT up to 7 years of age and OPV up to 5 years of age

Question:

A traveller who has passed through a yellow fever endemic zone and does not possess a Certificate of Vaccination against yellow fever, enters a yellow fever ‘receptive’ area. For how long from the date of leaving the infected area must this traveller be placed on quarantine in a mosquito-proof ward?

Options:

1. 6 days
2. 7 days
3. 8 days
4. 10 days

Answer:

1. 6 days

Question:

Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act 1948, if the sickness of an insured person is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment benefit is payable for a maximum period of how many days in any continuous period of 365 days, as Sickness Benefit ?

Options:

1. 30 days
2. 61 days
3. 91 days
4. 121 days

Answer:

3. 91 days

Question:

Consider the following statements regarding Wernicke’s encephalopathy:

I. It is caused by niacin deficiency
II. It is often seen in alcoholics.
III. Ophthalmoplegia, polyneuritis and ataxia are some of its characteristic features.
IV. It occurs occasionally in people who fast.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Answer:

2. II, III and IV

Question:

A housefly transmits any infectious agent by which of the following methods, most commonly?

Options:

1. Propagative transmission
2. Mechanical transmission
3. Cyclo-propagative transmission
4. Cyclo-developmental transmission

Answer:

2. Mechanical transmission

Question:

In the case of a 7-year-old school-going child, which would be the most appropriate indicator to measure the current nutritional status?

Options:

1. Birth weight
2. Mid upper arm circumference
3. Head circumference
4. Weight for height

Answer:

4. Weight for height

Question:

Consider the following statements with regard to Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC):
I. Early detection and special care of pre-term newborns is one of the major objectives of HBNC.
II. ANM is the main person involved in the delivery of HBNC.
III. Supporting the family for adoption of healthy practices helps achieve the objectives of HBNC.
IV. The primary aim of HBNC is to improve newborn survival.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Options:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I, III and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV only

Question:

Which of the following conditions are transmitted as a recessive, sex-linked trait?

I. Retinitis pigmentosa

II. Colour blindness

III. Cystic fibrosis

IV. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organisation proyide the STI/RTI services?

Options:

1. Antara Clinic
2. Chhaya Clinic
3. Sathi Clinic
4. Suraksha Clinic

Answer:

4. Suraksha Clinic

Question:

Which one among the following essential amino acids is usually the “limiting” amino acid in most of the pulses?

Options:

1. Lysine
2. Methionine
3. Threonine
4. Valine

Answer:

2. Methionine

Question:

Which among the following are defence mechanisms adopted when an individual is faced with, problems or failures?

I. Rationalization

II. Regression

III. Projection

IV. Replacement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

What are the reasons for choosing coliform organisms as indicators of faecal pollution of water rather than the waterborne pathogens directly?

I. They are present in great abundance in the human intestine and excreted in great numbers in faeces.

II. They have lower resistance to forces of natural purification.

III. They survive lesser than the pathogens.

IV. They are easily detected by culture methods.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and IV
2. II and III
3. I only
4. IV only

Answer:

1. I and IV

Question:

The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a programme to meet the challenge of high prevalence of anaemia amongst adolescent boys and girls. Consider the following statements in relation to the key interventions being undertaken:

I. It entails supervised weekly administration of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 µg folic acid.

II. These weekly iron-folic acid supplements are administered by using a fixed day approach.

III. It entails supervised administration of Albendazole 400 mg_every three months for control of helminth infestation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:

1. I only
2. II only
3. I and III
4. I and II

Answer:

4. I and II

Question:

The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) has defined certain milestones and targets. Among the following, which is the specific target that has to be met by the year 2027?

Options:

1. All states and UTs must reduce API to less than 1 case per 1000 population at risk.
2. All states and UTs must establish fully functional malaria surveillance to track, investigate and respond to each case
3. Entire country is to have no indigenous cases and no deaths due to malaria.
4. Entire country has to initiate the process for certification of malaria elimination.

Answer:

3. Entire country is to have no indigenous cases and no deaths due to malaria.

Question:

Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the beneficiaries are being provided with a minimum package of antenatal care including certain investigations and drugs on a fixed day of every month. Which day of the month is specified for this purpose?

Options:

1. 1st day of the month
2. 7th day of the month
3. 9th day of the month
4. 15th day of the month

Answer:

3. 9th day of the month

Question:

“Small for Date” (SFD) babies, also known as “small for gestational age” babies, weigh less than what percentile for the gestational age?

Options:

1. 2nd percentile
2. 5th percentile
3. 10th percentile
4. 20th percentile

Answer:

3. 10th percentile

Question:

In the most widespread calculation of Stillbirth Rate, the numerator is defined as foetal deaths weighing over ‘X’ gram at birth, during the year.

Which one of the following is the correct value for ‘X’?

Options:

1. 500
2. 750
3. 1000
4. 1500

Answer:

3. 1000

Question:

While performing triage in response to a disaster emergency commonly an internationally accepted four-colour code system is used. Which one among the following four-colour categories represents the highest priority for emergency response?

Options:

1. Black
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answer:

3. Red

Question:

Consider the following statements with regard to Ice-Lined Refrigerator (ILR) employed for storing vaccines at the sub-district level.

I. These types of refrigerators are top-opening.

II. Based on the temperature zone, the inside of ILRs can be divided into 3 parts.

III. The upper part of ILR is cooler compared to the lowerpart.

IV. Vaccines should never be kept directly on the floor of the ILR as they can get damaged

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. I and IV

Answer:

4. I and IV

OBG (40 QUESTIONS: KEY SET C)

Question:

Which of the following are neonatal complications of maternal diabetes during pregnancу ?

I. Hyperbilirubinemia

II. Hypercalcemia

III. Cardiomyopathy

IV. Hypoglycemia

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following are the predictive factors for Fetal Growth Restriction (FGR)?

I. Low level of maternal 1st trimester Beta hCG

II. Abnormal uterine artery Doppler at 20-24 weeks of pregnancy

III. Fetal echogenic bowel on ultrasound

IV. Maternal medical disorder

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

4. II, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following is the primary surveillance tool in the Growth Restricted Fetus?

Options:

1. Uterine artery doppler
2. Umbilical venous pulsation
3. Middle cerebral artery doppler
4. Umbilical artery doppler

Answer:

4. Umbilical artery doppler

Question:

Glands of Cloquet are :

Options:

1. lymphatic drainage of vulva
2. lymphatic drainage of cervix
3. lymphatic drainage of uterus
4. lubricating glands of vagina

Answer:

1. lymphatic drainage of vulva

 

Question:

Causes of AUB are subdivided by the acronym PALM-COEIN. What are the characteristics of PALM causes?

I. Structural lesions

II. Diagnosed by ultrasound

III. Confirmed by histopathology

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only

Answer:

3. I, II and III

Question:

Daily suppressive therapy for HSV-1 and HSV-2 is :

Options:

1. Valacyclovir 1 g once daily
2. Acyclovir 400 mg once daily
3. Acyclovir 400 mg thrice daily
4. Valacyclovir 1 g twice daily

Answer:

1. Valacyclovir 1 g once daily

Question:

Which of the following are the primary organisms involved in PID
I. N. gonorrhoeaе
II. Chlamydia
III. Мусoplasma hominis
IV. Candida albicans
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

What are the characteristics of a dermoid cyst

I. Germ cell ovarian tumour

II. Bilateral in 15-20% cases

III. Torsion is common

IV. Rupture is common

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and III only
2. II and IV only
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II and III

Answer:

4. I, II and III

Question:

Which one of the following is not a differential diagnosis of chronic inversion of uterus?

Options:

1. Fibroid polyp
2. Fungating cervical malignancy
3. Cervical prolapse
4. Gartner’s cyst

Answer:

4. Gartner’s cyst

Question:

A 28-year-old P2L2 presents to Gynaecology OPD with complaints of malodorous vaginal discharge. On examination, the discharge was found to be grayish-white in colour and adherent to vaginal walls. Which one of the following is a bedside diagnostic criterion for the causative organism?

Options:

1. Presence of RBCs in vaginal smear
2. Vaginal pH < 4.5
3. Positive 10% potassium hydroxide test
4. Positive NAAT test

Answer:

3. Positive 10% potassium hydroxide test

Question:

Chadwick’s sign describes:

Options:

1. the dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy
2. softening of cervix at 6th week of pregnancy
3. the abdominal and vaginal fingers apposed below the body of the uterus during bimanual examination
4. regular and rhythmic uterine contraction which can be elicited during bimanual examination at 4-8 weeks of pregnancy

Answer:

1. the dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy

Question:

Which of the following treatments are recommended for a pregnant woman suffering from sickle cell disease?
I. Folic acid 1mg daily
II. Azathioprine
III. Penicillin prophylaxis
IV. Thromboprophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following are contraindications to External Cephalic Version (ECV) in breech

I. Pregnancy less than 36 weeks

II. Multiple pregnancy

III. Previous cesarean delivery

IV. Rhesus isoimmunization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, III and IV
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. I, II and III

Answer:

2. II, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following hematological findings re seen in pregnant women with thalassemia trait?

Options:

1. Raised HbA2 and low MCV
2. Low MCHC
3. Low serum total iron binding capacity
4. Low HbA2 and raised MCV

Answer:

1. Raised HbA2 and low MCV

Question:

The best drug for maintenance therapy of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) guring pregnancy is:

Options:

1. Hydroxychloroquine
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Tacrolimus
4. Progestins

Answer:

1. Hydroxychloroquine

Question:

Which of the following maternal complications can be seen in hyperemesis gravidarum?

I. Wernicke’s encephalopathy

II. Неpatic failure

III. Нурoprothrombinemia

IV. Convulsions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II, III and IV
2. I, III and IV only
3. I, II and IV only
4. II and III only

Answer:

1. I, II, III and IV

Question:

The commonest ovarian tumour seen during pregnancy is

Options:

1. Benign cystic teratoma
2. Mucinous cystadenoma
3. Endometrioma
4. Adenocarcinoma ovary

Answer:

1. Benign cystic teratoma

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding shoulder dystocia?

I. It can be predicted during early labour

II. Anencephaly is a risk factor

III. Turtle neck sign is present.

IV. Episiotomy should always be given.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I. III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

4. II, III and IV

Question:

A primigravida at 38 weeks pregnancy was put on oxytocin drip in view of slow labour at the rate of 30 mlU/min by the newly appointed registrar. She complains of confusion and starts throwing fits. What electrolyte imbalance is expected to have happened in this case?

Options:

1. Hypokalemia
2. Hyponatremia
3. Hypocalcemia
4. Hypernatremia

Answer:

2. Hyponatremia

Question:

Which of the following factors favour posterior position of the vertex?

I. Anthropoid pelvis

II. Low inclination pelvis

III. Attachment of placenta on the anterior wall

IV. Primary brachycephaly

Select the correct answer using the code given

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements about hysterosalpingography, as an operative procedure, are correct?

I. Tubal patency assessment following tuboplasty operation

II. Diagnosis of uterine synechiae

III. Detection of IUD

IV. Diagnosis of subserosal fibroid

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following are indications of endometrial sampling?

I. Endometrial tuberculosis

II. Endometrial polyp

III. Postmenopausal bleeding

IV. Abnormal uterine bleeding

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

A 30-year-old P3L3 female presents in Gynaecology emergency with acute abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of short duration (1 hour). She gives history of tubal ligation after birth of third child.

On examination, right adnexal tenderness was found and os was closed.

What is the probable diagnosis ?

Options:

1. Ectopic pregnancy
2. Pelvic inflammatory disease
3. Appendicitis
4. Complete abortion

Answer:

1. Ectopic pregnancy

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding audit in Obstetrics and Gynaecology?

I. It can replace the out of date clinical practices with better ones.

II. It is an efficient educational tool.

III. It should be based on scientific evidences with facts and figures.

IV. It is not labour-intensive.

Select the answer using the code given below

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following are poor prognostic factors in endometrial adenocarcinoma?

I. Estrogen and progesterone receptor positivity

II. HER-2/neu gene expression

III. Histologic types papillary serous or cléar cell carcinoma

IV. Aneuploid tumours

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

4. II, III and IV

Question:

For which of the following conditions, surgery is indicated in a case of Fibroid Uterus?

I. Symptomatic and failed medical management

II. Size > 12 weeks

III. Pedunculated fibroid

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. I and III only

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following is measured without any straining while examination under ‘POP-Q system?

Options:

1. TVL
2. Pb
3. GH
4. Point D

Answer:

1. TVL

Which of the following are criteria for opting Le Fort’s operation for surgical correction of pelvic organ prolapse?

I. Procidentia in old age

II. Unfit for long duration surgery

III. Associated uterine pathology

IV. Coital function no longer required

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, III and IV
2. I and II only
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Answer:

4. I, II and IV

Question:

Opening of Bartholin’s duct is in the

Options:

1. Vestibule outside the hymen at the junction of the anterior 2/3rd and posterior 1/3rd in the groove between the hymen and labium minus
2. Groove between labia majora and labia minora
3. Superficial perineal -pouch at the junction of anterior 1/3rd and post 1/3rd
4. Periurethral region in anterior 1/3rd of labia minora

Answer:

1. Vestibule outside the hymen at the junction of the anterior 2/3rd and posterior 1/3rd in the groove between the hymen and labium minus

Question:

Which of the following are Amsel’s diagnostic criteria?

I. Vaginal pH > 4.5

II. Positive Whiff test

III. Presence of clue cells > 20%

IV. Positive bacterial vaginal culture

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following factors are associated with cord prolapse during labour?

I. Malpresentations

II. Contracted pelvis

III. Stabilizing induction

IV. Prematurity

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II, III and IV
2. I, II and IV only
3. I, II and III only
4. III and IV only

Answer:

1. I, II, III and IV

Question:

Detection of magnesium toxicity in a patient receiving magnesium sulphate is noticed by which of the following?

I. Loss of tendon reflexes

II. Increased respiratory rate

III. Chest pain, heart block

IV. Cardiac arrest

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, III and IV
2. II and IV only
3. I and III only
4. III and IV only

Answer:

3. I and III only

Question:

Which one of the following is correct regarding postpartum paychosis ?

Options:

1. There is often no family history of psychosis.
2. Its onset is usually within 4 days of delivery.
3. Recurrence rate in subsequent pregnancy is 60-70%.
4. Electro convulsive therapy is the first treatment of choice.

Answer:

2. Its onset is usually within 4 days of delivery.

Question:

Which of the following are correct in the treatment of cracked nipple?
1. Correct attachment (Latch on) will provide immediate relief from pain and rapid healing.
II. If pain, mother should use breast pump and the infant is fed with the expressed milk.
III. Miconazole lotion is applied over the nipple as well as in the baby’s mouth if there is oral thrush.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Answer:

4. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following are correct regarding puerperal blues?

I. Its incidence is around 50%

II. There is no specific metabolic endocrine derangement.

III. Treatment is reassurance and psychological support.

Select the answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Answer:

4. I, II and III

Question:

The Matthews Duncan process has been described for:

Options:

1. Marginal separation of placenta in normal labour
2. Central separation of placenta in normal labour
3. Controlled contraction in active management of third stage of labour
4. Reposition of acute inversion of uterus following vaginal delivery

Answer:

1. Marginal separation of placenta in normal labour

Question:

A P1L1 lady after 4 hours of delivery is suffering from persistent, severe pain in the perineal region, (rectal tenesmus, bearing down feeling and retention of urine. The probable diagnosis is:

Options:

1. Cervical tear
2. Vulval hematoma
3. Supralevator hematoma
4. Complete perineal tear

Answer:

2. Vulval hematoma

Question:

According to WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines 2018, which one of the following is correct about duration of first stage labour?

Options:

1. Duration of latent phase of primigravida has not been established
2. Duration of active stage of multigravida should not exceed 6 hours
3. Duration of active stage of primigravida should not exceed 8 hours
4. Duration of active stage of primigravida should not exceed 18 hours

Answer:

1. Duration of latent phase of primigravida has not been established

Question:

According to WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines 2018, which of the following are correct about birthing position?

I. For a woman without epidural analgesia, adoption of birthing position is individual woman’s choice.

II. For a woman without epidural analgesia, upright birthing position may be adopted.

III. For a woman with epidural analgesia, lithotomy and supine position only are recommended.

Select the answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Answer:

1. I and II only

Question:

Twin pregnancy should have ultrasound at 10-13 weeks to confirm which of the following?

I. Number of foetus

II. Viability of foetus

III. Chorionicity of twins

IV. Malformation in either foetus

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III only
2. I and III only
3. II and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer:

4. I, II, III and IV

General Surgery (40 QUESTIONS: KEY SET C)

Question:

The most common site of urethral opening in cases of hypospadias is:

Options:

1. Just proximal to the glans
2. On the penile shaft
3. At the junction of penile shaft and stratum
4. On the perineum

Answer:

1. Just proximal to the glans

Question:

Which of the following about Minimal Access Surgery are correct?

I. Decreased intraoperative heat loss

II. Improved visualization

III. Increased chances of herniation

IV. Improved mobility

Select the answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, III and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Answer:

4. I, II and IV

Question:

The maximum şafe dose for Lignocaine (without adrenaline) as a local anaesthetic drug is:

Options:

1. 3 mg/kg
2. 5 mg/kg
3. 7 mg/kg
4. 9 mg/kg

Answer:

1. 3 mg/kg

Question:

Which of the following are the symptoms commonly experienced by patients with lymphoedema?
I. Swelling
II. Burning sensation
III. Intolerance to cold
IV. Cramps
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, lI and IV
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, lI and IV

Question:

Which of the following are the malignancies associated with Lymphoedema

I. Kaposis Sarcoma

II. Squamous cell carcinoma

III. Malignant melanoma

IV. Leukaemia

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following are the techniques commonly used to close the raw area after excision of a pilonidal sinus in order to avoid a midline wound?

I. Limberg procedure

II. Y-V plasty

III. Z-plasty

IV. Karydakis procedure

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

A 45-year-old lady presents with history of a painless lump in the right breast since 1 month. On examination, the lump is hard, 3 × 4 cm in size in the upper outer quadrant and is not fixed to the skin or the underlying
structures. The axilla reveals firm mobile lymph nodes (level I). Rest of systemic examination is normal. The clinical stage of this disease is :

Options:

1. cT1N1Mx
2. cT2N1Mx
3. cT3N1Mx
4. cT3N2Mx

Answer:

2. cT2N1Mx

Question:

Which one of the following is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of oesophageal motility disorders?

Options:

1. Upper GI endoscopy
2. Barium swallow
3. High resolution manometry
4. Contrast enhanced CT scan (CECT) oesophagus

Answer:

3. High resolution manometry

Question:

Which of the following are considered aetiological factors for Adenocarcinoma oesophagus ?
I. Barrett’s oesophagus
II. Gastro-oesophageal reflux
III. Obesity
IV. Alcohol intake
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Consider the following statements regarding Plummer-Vinson syndrome:

I. Findings include cervical oesophageal web, iron deficiency anaemia and dysphagia.

II. It is a rare disease, mainly affecting middle-aged women

III. There is predisposition to postcricoid, cervical oesophageal cancer.

IV. Treatment is usually surgical.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. II,III and IV
2. I, Il and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. I, II and III

Answer:

4. I, II and III

Question:

Vibration white finger refers to:

Options:

1. Buerger’s disease
2. Raynaud’s syndrome
3. Acrocyanosis
4. Takayasu disease

Answer:

2. Raynaud’s syndrome

Question:

Which of the following are criteria for cancer screening?

I. Screening test should be sensitive and specific

II. Screening test should be acceptable to the screened population

III. The disease should be an uncommon one for screening to be effective

IV. Disease should be recognisable at an early stage

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

A 45-year-old lady presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle weakness along with bilateral multiple renal calculi which were picked up on a routine ultrasound. Further workup revealed serum calcium levels of 11.4 mg%. What is the next best investigation required to arrive at a diagnosis?

Options:

1. MRI neck
2. Sestamibi scan
3. CECT head and neck
4. NCCT head and neck

Answer:

2. Sestamibi scan

Question:

Which of the following are the aetiological factors associated with a communicating hydrocephalus?
1. Post haemorrhagic
II. Lesions within the ventricle
III. CSF infection
IV. Raised CSF protein

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding a brain abscess?

I. Abscesses arise when the brain is exposed directly as a result of fracture or infection of air sinus.

II. Presenting features include low grade fever, canfusion, seizures and focal deficits.

III: MRI with contrast is the initial imaging modality of choice.

IV. The aetological agents include bacteria, fungi, protozoa and viruses. Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

What is the most common type of tumour of Vermiform Appendix?

Options:

1. Epithelial tumour
2. Carcinoid tumour
3. Germ cell tumour
4. Papillary cell tumour

Answer:

1. Epithelial tumour

Question:

The earliest specific cystoscopic appearance of Bilharzial cystitis is

Options:

1. Sandy patches
2. Ulcers
3. Pseudo tubercles
4. Nodules

Answer:

3. Pseudo tubercles

Question:

Which one of the following best describes craniosynostosis?

Options:

1. It is delayed fusion of one or more cranial sutures preventing growth perpendicular to the suture.
2. It is the premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures, preventing growth perpendicular to the suture.
3. It is the premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures, facilitating growth perpendicular to thê suture.
4. It is delayed fusion of one or more cranial sutures facilitating growth perpendicular to the suture.

Answer:

2. It is the premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures, preventing growth perpendicular to the suture.

Question:

A 60-year-old female presents with pain in her back of recent onset, which has become severe of late. During the course of investigations, she was found to have lytic lesions in the vertebrae and ribs. Which of the following organs should be carefully screened now for detecting the primary cause of these lesions?

Options:

1. Small intestine
2. Large intestine
3. Adrenal
4. Breast

Answer:

4. Breast

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cauda equine syndrome?

I. Its presenting symptoms are perineal numbness, painless urinary retention and fecal incontinence.

II. Urgent investigation with MRI is required.

III. It is present-most commonly in the 45-60 year age group.

IV. Confirmed cases require early surgical decompression.

Select the answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

2. I, II and IV

Question:

Which of the following are correct regarding late dumping?

I. It usually occurs during the second hour after meal.

II. It lasts for 30-40 minutes.

III. Major symptoms are tremor, faintness, prostration

IV. It is relieved by lying down.

Select the answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding Gastric outlet obstruction associated with long standing peptic ulcer disease ?

Options:

1. Hypochloraemic alkalosis is the usual metabolic abnormality in such cases.
2. Endoscopic biopsy is essential to exclude malignancy.
3. Medical therapy has no role in the treatment of this condition
4. Operation is frequently required along with a drainage procedure.

Answer:

3. Medical therapy has no role in the treatment of this condition

Question:

The commonly used muscle relaxant with quickest onset of action and spontaneous recovery is :

Options:

1. Suxamethonium
2. Vecuronium
3. Atracurium
4. Rocuronium

Answer:

1. Suxamethonium

Question:

The first imaging modality of choice for a 35-year-old lady presenting to surgical emergency with complaints of colicky pain in right lower quadrant of abdomen and vomiting since last 2 days is:

Options:

1. Contrast CT abdomen
2. Non-contrast CT abdomen
3. Ultrasound abdomen
4. Plain X-ray abdomen erect view

Answer:

3. Ultrasound abdomen

Question:

Mallampati test is used for the assessment of:

Options:

1. Tongue size
2. Ability to protrude jaw
3. Breath hold time
4. Airway

Answer:

4. Airway

Question:

Consider the following
I. Diabetes
II. Hypertension
III. Renal failure
IV. Jaundice
Which of the above are the risk factors for post-operative wound dehiscence?

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3.  I, III and IV

Question:

If faced with a surgical emergency in a child of 15 years for whom no consent is available for life-saving surgery and no time for seeking authority from someone, the next step should be:

Options:

1. Conservative management till lawyer is available
2. Search for relatives or neighbours
3. Consent arrangement through Hospital Social Worker
4. Go ahead with surgery without consent

Answer:

4. Go ahead with surgery without consent

Question:

Which of the following information needs to be disclosed in order to establish valid consent for surgical treatment?

I. Condition and reasons why it warrants surgery

II. Type of surgery proposed

III. Unexpected hazards of proposed surgery

IV. The surgical experience and expertise of the operating surgeon

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

A surgical department of a premier medical college conducted a study on rates of post-operative wound infection. The results of the study were negative for the proposed hypothesis. What should the department do with the results?

Options:

1. Label them as worthless
2. Redo the study with a new hypothesis
3. Report the negative results
4. Redesign the study and increase the sample size

Answer:

3. Report the negative results

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding sutures in surgery ?

I. Barbed sutures have the advantage of eliminating the need for knots.

II. Vertical mattress sutures help in eversion of wound edges.

III. Aberdeen knot is used for continuous suturing.

IV. Silk is preferred for subcuticular suturing.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

The commonest site of pressure sore is:

Options:

1. Heel
2. Sacrum
3. Ischium
4. Occiput

Answer:

3. Ischium

Question:

Resection of which part of intestine does not significantly affect fluid and electrolyte balance?

Options:

1. Ileum
2. Proximal jejunụm
3. Distal jejunum
4. Colon

Answer:

2. Proximal jejunụm

Question:

Good measure of systemic perfusion by ABG is by measurement of:

Options:

1. Bicarbonate
2. pH
3. Lactate and/ or the base deficit
4. PCO2

Answer:

3. Lactate and/ or the base deficit

 

Question:

Which of the following are congenital abnormalities of the gall bladder?

I. The phrygian cap

II. Floating gall bladder

III. Absence of gall bladder

IV. Spigelian gall bladder

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

1. I, II and III

Question:

Which of the following are functions of the gall bladder?

I. Reservoir for bile

II. Production of bile

III. Secretion of mucus

IV. Concentration of bile

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, III and IV

Question:

Which one of following statements is correct regarding Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS)?

Options:

1. It principally affects young males
2. Venous drainage of the liver is occluded by IVC thrombus
3. Quadrate lobe (Segment 4 and 5) undergoes hypertrophy
4. Abdominal discomfort and ascites are the main presenting features.

Answer:

4. Abdominal discomfort and ascites are the main presenting features.

Question:

Which one of the following is correct regarding splenic artery aneurysm?

Options:

1. It is twice as common in men
2. It is usually situated in the main arterial trunk
3. It is caused due to blunt trauma to the abdomen
4. It is generally multiple in number

Answer:

2. It is usually situated in the main arterial trunk

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding primary survey/management of traumatic head injury patient?

1. Ensure adequate oxygenation and circulation

II. Exclude hypoglycaemia

III. Check for mechanism of injury

IV. Check pupil size and response

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, II and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding ABCDE of trauma care?

I. A stands for Airway with Cervical spine protection

II. B stands for Breathing and ventilation

III. C stands for Control of massive external haemorrhage

IV. D stands for Disability (Neurological status)

Select the answer using the code given below:

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. I, III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer:

3. I, II and IV

Question:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Inguinal hernias in children?

I. It is more common in full-term boys.

II. It should be repaired promptly.

III. It is always indirect

IV. It may frequently be transilluminant.

Select the answer using the code given below :

Options:

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer:

2. II, III and IV
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Dr.Naveen Kumar

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